Name: 
 

SEMESTER 2 STUDY REVIEW



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Water moves into a cell placed in a(n) _____ solution.
a.
osmotic
c.
hypotonic
b.
hypertonic
d.
isotonic
 

 2. 

Water moves out of a cell if the cell is placed in a(n) _____ solution.
a.
hypertonic
c.
hypotonic
b.
isotonic
d.
passive
 

 3. 

If cells are placed in a strong sugar solution, water will _____.
a.
pass from the sugar solution to the cells
b.
pass from the cells to the sugar solution
c.
stay in the cell
d.
pass back and forth
 

 4. 

A cell moves particles from a region of lesser concentration to a region of greater concentration by _____.
a.
facilitated diffusion
c.
osmosis
b.
passive transport
d.
active transport
 

 5. 

If a cell is placed in salt water, water leaves the cell by _____.
a.
osmosis
c.
active transport
b.
diffusion
d.
phagocytosis
 

 6. 

Which of the following is not a form of passive transport?
a.
facilitated diffusion
c.
facilitated diffusion
b.
endocytosis
d.
osmosis
 

 7. 

The structure most responsible for maintaining cell homeostasis is the _____.
a.
cytoplasm
c.
cell wall
b.
mitochondrion
d.
plasma membrane
 

 8. 

The causes of cancer may include which of the following?
a.
environmental influences
c.
viruses
b.
UV radiation
d.
all of the above
 

 9. 

A gene is a segment of DNA that controls the production of _____.
a.
carbohydrates
c.
centromeres
b.
microtubules
d.
proteins
 

 10. 

Which of the following monitors a cell's progress from phase to phase during the cell cycle?
a.
a series of enzymes
c.
lipid molecules
b.
microtubules
d.
protein molecules
 

 11. 

If the sides of a cell double in length, its volume increases by _____ times.
a.
two
c.
six
b.
four
d.
eight
 

 12. 

If the sides of a cell double in length, its surface area becomes _____ times as large.
a.
two
c.
six
b.
four
d.
eight
 

 13. 

Which of the following explains why a cell's size is limited?
a.
Volume increases faster than surface area.
b.
Surface area increases faster than volume.
c.
Homeostasis is disrupted by a cell that is too large.
d.
both a and c
 

 14. 

As a cell grows, its _____ increases more than its _____.
a.
length, volume
c.
volume, surface area
b.
width, surface area
d.
none of these
 

 15. 

Among the following, the term that includes the others is _____.
a.
interphase
c.
mitosis
b.
nuclear division
d.
cell cycle
 

 16. 

By the end of prophase, each of the following has occurred except _____.
a.
tighter coiling of the chromosomes
b.
breaking down of the nuclear envelope
c.
disappearing of the nucleolus
d.
lining up of chromosomes in the cell
 

 17. 

Unlike plant cells, animal cells contain _____.
a.
cell walls
c.
nucleoli
b.
centrioles
d.
spindles
 

 18. 

The longest phase of the cell cycle is _____.
a.
prophase
c.
metaphase
b.
interphase
d.
mitosis
 

 19. 

A chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber by the _____.
a.
nucleolus
c.
centromere
b.
deep furrow
d.
centriole
 

 20. 

Which of the following structures is the most complex?
a.
cell
c.
organ
b.
organ system
d.
tissue
 

 21. 

Which conditions shown in Figure 8-4 might cause a cell to burst?
semester2_study_review_files/i0220000.jpg
Figure 8-4
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 22. 

What cell process is responsible for the effect shown in Figure 8-5?
semester2_study_review_files/i0230000.jpg
Figure 8-5
a.
active transport
c.
facilitated diffusion
b.
passive transport
d.
osmosis
 

 23. 

The chromosomes shown in Figure 8-6 are in which state of mitosis?
semester2_study_review_files/i0240000.jpg
Figure 8-6
a.
prophase
c.
anaphase
b.
metaphase
d.
telophase
 

 24. 

What level of organization is shown in Figure 8-7?
semester2_study_review_files/i0250000.jpg
a.
tissue
c.
organ system
b.
organ
d.
organism
 
 
semester2_study_review_files/i0260000.jpg
Figure 8-8
 

 25. 

Which of the cells depicted in the line graph in Figure 8-8 are most likely cancerous?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 26. 

If cancer is present, what is the likely explanation for what happened to cells B and D?
a.
they thrived with the cancerous cells
b.
they were harmed by radiation therapy
c.
they died off on due to natural causes
d.
they died off because the cancerous cells deprived them of nutrients
 

 27. 

When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _____ occurs.
a.
crossing over
c.
hybridization
b.
mutagenesis
d.
fertilization
 

 28. 

Crossing over results in a _____.
a.
female genotype
c.
genetic recombination
b.
male genotype
d.
phenotype replication
 

 29. 

The _____ produced by each parent are shown along the sides of a Punnett square.
a.
zygotes
c.
gametes
b.
offspring
d.
hybrids
 

 30. 

A useful device for predicting the possible offspring of crosses between different genotypes is the _____.
a.
law of dominance
c.
Punnett square
b.
law of independent assortment
d.
testcross
 

 31. 

Which of the following describes an organism that has the genotype Bb?
a.
homozygous
c.
inbreed
b.
heterozygous
d.
all of these
 

 32. 

Mendel's law of segregation states that during meiosis, the factors that control each trait separate, and only _____ from each pair is/are passed to the offspring.
a.
one factor
c.
two factors
b.
the dominant trait
d.
the recessive trait
 

 33. 

The law of independent assortment states that the inheritance of alleles for one trait is not affected by the inheritance of alleles for a different trait if the genes for the traits are on _____.
a.
separate chromosomes
c.
the same chromosome
b.
homologous chromosomes
d.
homozygous chromosomes
 

 34. 

The passing on of traits from parents to offspring is called _____.
a.
genetics
c.
inbreeding
b.
heredity
d.
gene splicing
 

 35. 

The statement: "In meiosis, the way in which a chromosome pair separates does not affect the way other pairs separate," is another way of expressing Mendel's law of _____.
a.
dominance
c.
independent assortment
b.
first filial generations
d.
Punnett squares
 

 36. 

Cells containing two alleles for each trait are described as _____.
a.
haploid
c.
diploid
b.
gametes
d.
homozygous
 

 37. 

The gamete that contains genes contributed only by the mother is _____.
a.
the sperm
c.
a zygote
b.
an egg
d.
dominant
 

 38. 

Pollination can best be described as _____.
a.
the fusing of the egg nucleus with the pollen nucleus
b.
the transfer of the male pollen grain to the female organ
c.
the formation of male and female sex cells
d.
the type of cell division that produces diploid gametes
 

 39. 

A couple has two children, both of whom are boys. What is the chance that the parents' next child will be a boy?
a.
0%
c.
25%
b.
50%
d.
75%
 

 40. 

A dog's phenotype can be determined by _____.
a.
looking at the dog's parents
b.
examining the dog's chromosomes
c.
mating the dog and examining its offspring
d.
looking at the dog
 

 41. 

A female guinea pig homozygous dominant for black fur color is mated with a male homozygous for white fur color. In a litter of eight offspring, there would probably be _____.
a.
8 black guinea pigs
b.
4 black and 4 white guinea pigs
c.
2 black, 4 gray, and 2 white guinea pigs
d.
8 white guinea pigs
 

 42. 

The numbers in Figure 10-1 represent the chromosome number found in each of the dog cells shown. The processes that are occurring at A and B are _____.
semester2_study_review_files/i0440000.jpg
Figure 10-1
a.
mitosis and fertilization
c.
mitosis and pollination
b.
meiosis and fertilization
d.
meiosis and pollination
 

 43. 

Genes located on homologous chromosomes may have alternate forms that control different forms of a trait. These alternate forms of a gene are called _____.
a.
alleles
c.
phenotypes
b.
centromeres
d.
gametes
 

 44. 

A white mouse whose parents are both white produces only brown offspring when mated with a brown mouse. The white mouse is most probably _____.
a.
homozygous recessive
c.
homozygous dominant
b.
heterozygous
d.
haploid
 

 45. 

In chickens, rose comb (R) is dominant to single comb (r). A homozygous rose-combed rooster is mated with a single-combed hen. All of the chicks in the F1 generation were kept together as a group for several years. They were allowed to mate only within their own group. What is the expected phenotype of the F2 chicks?
a.
100% rose comb
b.
75% rose comb and 25% single comb
c.
100% single comb
d.
50% rose comb and 50% single comb
 

 46. 

In mink, brown fur color is dominant to silver-blue fur color. If a homozygous brown mink is mated with a silver-blue mink and 8 offspring are produced, how many would be expected to be silver-blue?
a.
0
c.
6
b.
3
d.
8
 

 47. 

The diagram in Figure 10-2 shows a diploid cell with two homologous pairs of chromosomes. Due to independent assortment, the possible allelic combinations that could be found in gametes produced by the meiotic division of this cell are _____.
semester2_study_review_files/i0490000.jpg
Figure 10-2
a.
Bb, Dd, BB, and DD
c.
BbDd and BDbd
b.
BD, bD, Bd, and bd
d.
Bd and bD only
 

 48. 

Using Figure 10-3, which process would result in the formation of chromosome C from chromosomes A and B?
semester2_study_review_files/i0500000.jpg
Figure 10-3
a.
asexual reproduction
c.
crossing over
b.
independent assortment
d.
segregation
 
 
semester2_study_review_files/i0510000.jpg
Figure 10-5
 

 49. 

According to Figure 10-5, the constricted pod shape is _____.
a.
dominant
c.
segregated
b.
recessive
d.
hybrid
 

 50. 

What is the genotype of generation 1 in Figure 10-5?
a.
II
c.
ii
b.
Ii
d.
I
 

 51. 

What is the phenotype of generation 1 in Figure 10-5?
a.
II
c.
inflated
b.
Ii
d.
constricted
 

 52. 

What is the genotype in the bottom left-hand quadrant in Figure 10-6?
semester2_study_review_files/i0550000.jpg
Figure 10-6
a.
WW
c.
wW
b.
Ww
d.
ww
 
 
semester2_study_review_files/i0560000.jpg
Figure 10-7
 

 53. 

How should the top row of Figure 10-7 read?
a.
MMXX, MMXx, MmXX, MmXx
c.
mMXX, mMXx, mmXX, mmXx
b.
MMxX, MMxx, MmxX, Mmxx
d.
mMxX, mMxx, mmxX, mmxx
 

 54. 

What fraction of this cross will be recessive for both traits?
a.
1/2
c.
1/8
b.
1/4
d.
1/16
 
 
semester2_study_review_files/i0590000.jpg
Figure 10-8
 

 55. 

In Figure 10-8, what gametes will result if there is only a single crossover?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 56. 

In Figure 10-8, what gamaetes will result if each chromatid crossed with a nonsister chromatid?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 57. 

Which one of the following nucleotide pair bonds would be found in a DNA molecule?
a.
adenine-guanine
c.
adenine-cytosine
b.
guanine-cytosine
d.
cytosine-uracil
 

 58. 

The backbone of a DNA molecule is made of which two components?
a.
phosphate molecules and ribose sugars
b.
deoxyphosphate molecules and ribose sugars
c.
phosphate molecules and deoxyribose sugars
d.
deoxyphosphate molecules and deoxyribose sugars
 

 59. 

Ribosomes are made of _____.
a.
rRNA and protein
c.
rRNA and mRNA
b.
tRNA and mRNA
d.
protein and tRNA
 

 60. 

Watson and Crick were the first to suggest that DNA is _____.
a.
a short molecule
c.
a protein molecule
b.
the shape of a double helix
d.
the genetic material
 

 61. 

The chromosome abnormality that occurs when part of one chromosome breaks off and is added to a different chromosome is _____.
a.
deletion
c.
translocation
b.
nondisjunction
d.
inversion
 

 62. 

Which of the following would be least likely to happen as a result of a mutation in a person's skin cells?
a.
skin cancer
b.
reduced functioning of the skin cell
c.
no change in functioning of the skin cell
d.
the person's offspring have mutated skin
 

 63. 

The pairing of _____ in DNA is the key feature that allows DNA to be copied.
a.
nucleotides
c.
chromosomes
b.
nitrogen bases
d.
codons
 

 64. 

The process by which a DNA molecule is copied is called _____.
a.
binary fission
c.
replication
b.
mitosis
d.
translation
 

 65. 

A DNA nucleotide may be made up of a phosphate group, along with _____.
a.
deoxyribose sugar and uracil
c.
deoxyribose sugar and thymine
b.
ribose sugar and adenine
d.
ribose sugar and cytosine
 

 66. 

Which series is arranged in order from largest to smallest in size?
a.
chromosome, nucleus, cell, DNA, nucleotide
b.
cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA, nucleotide
c.
nucleotide, chromosome, cell, DNA, nucleus
d.
cell, nucleotide, nucleus, DNA, chromosome
 

 67. 

Messenger RNA is formed in the process of _____.
a.
transcription
c.
replication
b.
translation
d.
mutation
 

 68. 

An RNA molecule is a polymer composed of subunits known as _____.
a.
polysaccharides
c.
nucleotides
b.
ribose molecules
d.
uracil molecules
 

 69. 

X rays, ultraviolet light, and radioactive substances that can change the chemical nature of DNA are classified as _____.
a.
growth regulators
c.
hydrolytic enzymes
b.
metamorphic molecules
d.
mutagens
 
 
semester2_study_review_files/i0750000.jpg
Figure 11-1
 

 70. 

In which part of the cell does this process shown in Figure 11-1 take place?
a.
in the nucleus
c.
at the ribosomes
b.
in food vacuoles
d.
on the chromosome
 

 71. 

Which of the structures in Figure 11-1 are composed of RNA?
a.
II and IV
c.
I and V
b.
III and IV
d.
III and V
 

 72. 

Structure III in Figure 11-1 represents a(n) _____.
a.
gene
c.
codon
b.
amino acid
d.
DNA molecule
 

 73. 

The process illustrated in Figure 11-1 is called _____.
a.
translation
c.
monoploidy
b.
replication
d.
transcription
 
 
Help Wanted
Positions Available in the genetics industry. Hundreds of entry-level openings for tireless workers. No previous experience necessary. Must be able to transcribe code in a nuclear environment. The ability to work in close association with ribosomes is a must.
Accuracy and Speed vital for this job in the field of translation. Applicants must demonstrate skills in transporting and positioning amino acids. Salary commensurate with experience.
Executive Position available. Must be able to maintain genetic continuity through replication and control cellular activity by regulation of enzyme production. Limited number of openings. All benefits.
Supervisor of production of proteins—all shifts. Must be able to follow exact directions from double-stranded template. Travel from nucleus to the cytoplasm is additional job benefit.
Table 11-1
 

 74. 

Applicants for the fourth job of the Help Wanted ad in Table 11-1, "Supervisor," could qualify if they were _____.
a.
DNA
c.
tRNA
b.
mRNA
d.
rRNA
 

 75. 

Applicants for the third job of the Help Wanted ad in Table 11-1, "Executive Position," could qualify if they were _____.
a.
DNA
c.
tRNA
b.
mRNA
d.
rRNA
 

 76. 

Applicants for the second job of the Help Wanted ad in Table 11-1, "Accuracy and Speed," could qualify if they were _____.
a.
DNA
c.
tRNA
b.
mRNA
d.
rRNA
 

 77. 

A DNA segment is changed from-AATTAG- to -AAATAG-. This is a ____.
a.
frameshift mutation
c.
inversion
b.
point mutation
d.
deletion
 

 78. 

A DNA segment is changed from -AATTAGAAATAG- to -ATTAGAAATAG-.  This is a ____.
a.
frameshift mutation
c.
inversion
b.
point mutation
d.
translation
 
 
semester2_study_review_files/i0860000.jpg
Figure 11-3
 

 79. 

Which structure shown in Figure 11-3 is a pyrimidine?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 80. 

Which structure shown in Figure 11-3 does not contain a nitrogenous base?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 81. 

Which structure shown in Figure 11-3 would attract a free cytosine nucleotide?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 
 
semester2_study_review_files/i0900000.jpg
Figure 11-4
 

 82. 

What type of mutation has occurred in Figure 11-4?
a.
point mutation
c.
lethal
b.
frame shift
d.
protein
 

 83. 

What will be the result of the mutation in Figure 11-4?
a.
it will have no affect on protein function
b.
only one amino acid will change
c.
nearly every amino acid in the protein will be changed
d.
the organism will die
 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
 

 84. 

The structures that hold together sister chromatids are ____________________.
 

 

 85. 

In a dividing cell, the football-shaped structure consisting of thin fibers is the ____________________.
 

 

 86. 

The process by which nuclear material is divided equally between two new cells is ____________________.
 

 

 87. 

The dark-staining structures that carry the genetic material are the ____________________.
 

 

 88. 

The uncontrolled division of cells that results in a malignant growth is known as ____________________.
 

 

 89. 

The two halves of a doubled chromosome structure are called ____________________.
 

 

 90. 

The sequence of growth and division of a cell makes up the ____________________.
 

 

 91. 

The phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate from each other is ____________________.
 

 

 92. 

Cells that work together to perform the same function are organized into ____________________.
 

 

 93. 

Watson and Crick called the three-dimensional shape of DNA a ____________________.
 

 

 94. 

When parts of chromosomes are broken off and lost during mitosis or meiosis, the result is a(n) ____________________.
 

 

 95. 

The process of converting RNA code into an amino acid sequence is called ____________________.
 

 

 96. 

If a nucleotide is added or removed from a DNA molecule and mRNA is created, the codons after the mutation will not be read correctly. This is a ____________________.
 

 

 97. 

A change in a single base pair of the DNA molecule that affects the synthesis of an entire protein is called a(n) ____________________.
 

 

 98. 

The molecule ____________________ brings amino acids to the ribosomes for the assembly of proteins.
 

 

 99. 

Each set of three nitrogen bases representing an amino acid is referred to as a(n) ____________________.
 

 

 100. 

The process by which DNA makes a copy of itself is called ____________________.
 

 

 101. 

Thymine, adenine, guanine, and cytosine are classified as ____________________.
 

 

 102. 

Watson and Crick, with the help of Rosalind Franklin, developed the ____________________ model of DNA.
 

 

 103. 

A(n) ____________________ involves the addition or deletion of a single base in a DNA molecule.
 

 

 104. 

During the process of transcription, DNA serves as the template for making ____________________, which leaves the nucleus and travels to the ribosomes.
 

 

 105. 

Translation is to protein as transcription is to ____________________.
 

 

 106. 

DNA is to RNA as double stranded is to ____________________.
 

 

 107. 

Adenine is to thymine as guanine is to ____________________.
 

 

Matching
 
 
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.
exocytosis
d.
isotonic solution
b.
gene
e.
osmosis
c.
diffusion
f.
hypertonic solution
 

 108. 

movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration
 

 109. 

the concentration of dissolved substances outside the cell is higher than the concentration inside the cell
 

 110. 

the concentration of dissolved substances in the solution is the same as the concentration of dissolved substances inside the cell
 

 111. 

a segment of DNA that controls the production of a protein
 

 112. 

diffusion of water molecules through a selectively permeable membrane
 

 113. 

release of wastes or cell products from inside to outside a cell
 
 
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.
crossing over
e.
haploid
b.
meiosis
f.
homozygous
c.
dihybrid
g.
zygote
d.
heredity
h.
fertilization
 

 114. 

A cross involving two different traits
 

 115. 

The exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes
 

 116. 

The uniting of the male and female gametes
 

 117. 

The cell produced when a male gamete fuses with a female gamete
 

 118. 

The type of cell division that produces gametes
 

 119. 

A cell that contains one member of each chromosome pair
 

 120. 

The alleles present for a trait are the same
 

 121. 

The passing of characteristics from parents to offspring
 



 
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